Prove that for any
integer *n*.

This follows from the remark made in the solution to the previous problem. Or we can give a simple proof by induction.

We have the result for *n*=1. Suppose that we know it for integers up
to *m*. We have shown that for any pair
of complex numbers. So we may write

**
**

Do you need more help? Please post your question on our S.O.S. Mathematics CyberBoard.

Contact us

Math Medics, LLC. - P.O. Box 12395 - El Paso TX 79913 - USA

users online during the last hour