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kasheee
 Post subject: functions
PostPosted: Mon, 13 Sep 2010 21:38:16 UTC 
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There seems to me something a little suspicious about this explanation.

Should it not read (f^(-1)(x)= f^(-1)(y)? Thanks.

" if we have the equation f(x)= y and apply the inverse function to both sides of the function it reduces to f(f^(-1)(x)= f^(-1)(y) "
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Matt
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PostPosted: Tue, 14 Sep 2010 00:20:47 UTC 
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It should read: f^{-1}(f(x))=f^{-1}(y)
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