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 Post subject: On Borell's Theorem (Gaussian processes)
PostPosted: Sat, 4 Jun 2011 20:04:06 UTC 
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Let {X(t):t \geq 0} be a Gaussian process with mean 0 and bounded (with probability 1) sample paths. Borell's Theorem states then that for all u>0 we have
P(sup_{t \geq 0} X(t)>u) \leq 2 \Psi (\frac{u-m}{\sigma_T}),
where m is the median of supX(t), \sigma_T is the supremum of VarX(t) and \Psi = 1 - \Phi is the tail of a standard normal distribution.
I need to show that under the assumptions of this theorem (we can use the theorem as well) supX(t) has finite all moments, i.e. E(supX(t))^k exists and is finite fot all k \geq 1.

Thank you for any help.


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 Post subject: Re: On Borell's Theorem (Gaussian processes)
PostPosted: Sun, 5 Jun 2011 07:01:43 UTC 
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Nobody1111 wrote:
Let {X(t):t \geq 0} be a Gaussian process with mean 0 and bounded (with probability 1) sample paths. Borell's Theorem states then that for all u>0 we have
P(sup_{t \geq 0} X(t)>u) \leq 2 \Psi (\frac{u-m}{\sigma_T}),
where m is the median of supX(t), \sigma_T is the supremum of VarX(t) and \Psi = 1 - \Phi is the tail of a standard normal distribution.
I need to show that under the assumptions of this theorem (we can use the theorem as well) supX(t) has finite all moments, i.e. E(supX(t))^k exists and is finite fot all k \geq 1.

Thank you for any help.


You forgot a finiteness assumption of m,\sigma_T, e.g. Brownian motion on [0,\infty).

Once you have finiteness, it is just \Psi(\cdot) is rapidly decreasing.

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\begin{aligned}
Spin(1)&=O(1)=\mathbb{Z}/2&\quad&\text{and}\\
Spin(2)&=U(1)=SO(2)&&\text{are obvious}\\
Spin(3)&=Sp(1)=SU(2)&&\text{by }q\mapsto(\mathop{\mathrm{Im}}\mathbb{H}\ni p\mapsto qp\bar{q})\\
Spin(4)&=Sp(1)\times Sp(1)&&\text{by }(q_1,q_2)\mapsto(\mathbb{H}\ni p\mapsto q_1p\bar{q_2})\\
Spin(5)&=Sp(2)&&\text{by }\mathbb{HP}^1\cong S^4_{round}\hookrightarrow\mathbb{R}^5\\
Spin(6)&=SU(4)&&\text{by the irrep }\Lambda_+\mathbb{C}^4
\end{aligned}


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 Post subject:
PostPosted: Tue, 7 Jun 2011 07:50:21 UTC 
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Assuming that m and \sigma_T are finite, I have still some problems with proving that E(supX(t))^k is finite.
My first problem is how toexploit the knowledge about the tail distribution of supremum to calculate the k-th moment. I know the formula
EX=\int_0 ^\infty (1-F(x))dx - \int_{-\infty} ^0 F(x)dx if F is the cdf of X. But is there any similar formula valid for higher moments?
The second problem is that the bound in Borell's theorem holds for u>0 and we don't know what happens if u<0.
I have been trying to solve the problem without Borell's theorem but I gave it up.


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 Post subject:
PostPosted: Tue, 7 Jun 2011 11:43:30 UTC 
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Nobody1111 wrote:
Assuming that m and \sigma_T are finite, I have still some problems with proving that E(supX(t))^k is finite.
My first problem is how toexploit the knowledge about the tail distribution of supremum to calculate the k-th moment. I know the formula
EX=\int_0 ^\infty (1-F(x))dx - \int_{-\infty} ^0 F(x)dx if F is the cdf of X. But is there any similar formula valid for higher moments?
The second problem is that the bound in Borell's theorem holds for u>0 and we don't know what happens if u<0.
I have been trying to solve the problem without Borell's theorem but I gave it up.


Answer to your first question: \mathbb{E}[Y^p:Y>0]=p\int_0^\infty t^{p-1}\mathbb{P}(\{Y>t\})\,\mathrm{d}t follows from a simple change of variable in Cavalieri's formula (or Tonelli's theorem).

Answer to your second question: Since the process has mean 0 (and assumed to have continuous paths?), you don't really have to worry about u<0 --- remember \sup A=-\inf(-A) and reflect the process will give you an immediate bound.

_________________
\begin{aligned}
Spin(1)&=O(1)=\mathbb{Z}/2&\quad&\text{and}\\
Spin(2)&=U(1)=SO(2)&&\text{are obvious}\\
Spin(3)&=Sp(1)=SU(2)&&\text{by }q\mapsto(\mathop{\mathrm{Im}}\mathbb{H}\ni p\mapsto qp\bar{q})\\
Spin(4)&=Sp(1)\times Sp(1)&&\text{by }(q_1,q_2)\mapsto(\mathbb{H}\ni p\mapsto q_1p\bar{q_2})\\
Spin(5)&=Sp(2)&&\text{by }\mathbb{HP}^1\cong S^4_{round}\hookrightarrow\mathbb{R}^5\\
Spin(6)&=SU(4)&&\text{by the irrep }\Lambda_+\mathbb{C}^4
\end{aligned}


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 Post subject:
PostPosted: Thu, 9 Jun 2011 14:27:58 UTC 
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Joined: Mon, 28 Dec 2009 16:23:32 UTC
Posts: 10
Thank you very much. I have been thinking about your post and now everything is clear for me.
Cheers :-)


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