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 Post subject: Limit
PostPosted: Mon, 1 Aug 2011 13:17:39 UTC 
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Suppose f is absolutely continuous on [\epsilon,1], 0<\epsilon<1, and \int_0^1x|f'(x)|^p dx<\infty. Prove that
a) \lim_{x\to 0}f(x) exists and finite for p>2,
b) \lim_{x\to 0} \frac{|f(x)|}{|\log(x)|^{1/2}}=0 , for p=2.

How to relate the limit to given integral?


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 Post subject: Re: Limit
PostPosted: Mon, 1 Aug 2011 19:51:31 UTC 
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What is p in this case? Is it for all p, or just some p?

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 Post subject: Re: Limit
PostPosted: Mon, 1 Aug 2011 23:03:05 UTC 
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Beta wrote:
Suppose f is absolutely continuous on [\epsilon,1], 0<\epsilon<1, and \int_0^1x|f'(x)|^p dx<\infty. Prove that
a) \lim_{x\to 0}f(x) exists and finite for p>2,
b) \lim_{x\to 0} \frac{|f(x)|}{|\log(x)|^{1/2}}=0 , for p=2.

How to relate the limit to given integral?


I think you want \forall \epsilon \in (0,1), rather than only some \epsilon\in (0,1), that f\vert[\epsilon,1] is absolutely continuous.

If p>2, then from measurability of f' and integrability of x\lvert f'\rvert^p, you know that x^{2+\delta}\lvert f'(x)\rvert^p is (uniformly) bounded for all \delta>0 (OK, technically speaking you want a representative of f' so that blahblahblah). Thus by choosing small enough \delta you can make sure 2+\delta<p and hence \lvert f'(x)\rvert\leq\dfrac{C}{x^q} with q<1, so dominated convergence gives...

For p=2, use a similar idea but dominate with \dfrac{1}{x\lvert\log x\rvert^q} instead of \dfrac{1}{x^q}.

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\begin{aligned}
Spin(1)&=O(1)=\mathbb{Z}/2&\quad&\text{and}\\
Spin(2)&=U(1)=SO(2)&&\text{are obvious}\\
Spin(3)&=Sp(1)=SU(2)&&\text{by }q\mapsto(\mathop{\mathrm{Im}}\mathbb{H}\ni p\mapsto qp\bar{q})\\
Spin(4)&=Sp(1)\times Sp(1)&&\text{by }(q_1,q_2)\mapsto(\mathbb{H}\ni p\mapsto q_1p\bar{q_2})\\
Spin(5)&=Sp(2)&&\text{by }\mathbb{HP}^1\cong S^4_{round}\hookrightarrow\mathbb{R}^5\\
Spin(6)&=SU(4)&&\text{by the irrep }\Lambda_+\mathbb{C}^4
\end{aligned}


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